2 English sentences- do they make sense and are they correct?

[vlenin66]

1. Your obstetrician has conformed to this certificate of receipt.

2. The board of directors has postponed the general meeting of
shareholders further to some unexpected incidents

Do the above sentences makes sense? Are they grammatically correct? In
which situation would they be used?

Thanks in advance.

[Clive]

Hi,
1. Your obstetrician has conformed to this certificate of
receipt.
I have no idea what this means. Try to say it some other
way.

2. The board of directors has postponed the general meeting
of shareholders, further to some unexpected incidents.
Used in a
business context, obviously.



Best wishes, Clive




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El tango argentino es un pensamiento triste que se puede bailar (The
tango argentino is a sad thought which can be danced) Enrique Santos
Discépolo

Clive: http://www.englishforums.com/user/drqr/profile.htm


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[vlenin66]

Post by vlenin66
Hi,
1. Your obstetrician has conformed to this certificate of
receipt.
I have no idea what this means. Try to say it some other
way.
2. The board of directors has postponed the general meeting
of shareholders, further to some unexpected incidents.
Used in a
business context, obviously.
Best wishes, Clive

Thanks, Clive.

The sentences are from a translation contest. (English->Hungarian).
Is the second not erroneous and a due is missing before the "to"?
(instead of "further to" further due to"?

Thanks in advance.

[Einde O'Callaghan]

Post by vlenin66

Post by vlenin66
Hi,
1. Your obstetrician has conformed to this certificate of
receipt.
I have no idea what this means. Try to say it some other
way.

I also have no idea what this is supposed to mean as I have never heard
of a "certificate of receipt".

Post by vlenin66

Post by vlenin66
2. The board of directors has postponed the general meeting
of shareholders, further to some unexpected incidents.
Used in a
business context, obviously.
Best wishes, Clive

Thanks, Clive.
The sentences are from a translation contest. (English->Hungarian).
Is the second not erroneous and a due is missing before the "to"?
(instead of "further to" further due to"?

"Further due to" is incorrect as is "further to" - only "due to" is
grammatically correct.

Regards, Einde O'Callaghan

[vlenin66]

Post by Einde O'Callaghan
"Further due to" is incorrect as is "further to" - only "due to" is
grammatically correct.
Regards, Einde O'Callaghan

Thanks a million for both answers. Great help for me. :-)